From the very beginning of existence of humankind, women was given the role of taking care of house work and children by society in almost every culture.
You might want to talk a bit about why this division of labor might have existed. The assertion itself is accurate enough, despite some now-discredited theories about prehistorical primitive societies. However, you give no reason why this division of labor should have been particularly beneficial to children, or why things ought to have been that way. There is often a rather large gap between is and ought, and you don't really bridge it at the moment.
This trend has changed since 1980s and now a majority of women are working for several reasons such as the need of socialising and sharing the burden of husband.
Again, you might want to go into a bit more detail about the reasons for this trend, which started well before the 1980s. The notion of universal equality, entrenched in the Declaration of Independence, hence in the national consciousness, has something to do with it. So too does the historical fact of women entering the industrialized work force during wartime, while the menfolk were off killing other menfolk.
The rest of your essay suffers from the same lack of depth. You don't really look in detail at how working mothers might provide alternative sources of care for their children, or at what effects the absence of a stay-at-home mother might have on children. Where you do touch on these topics, you provide no evidence for your assertions. Try revising your essay to contain more explanations and examples to prove your points.
